SPM Speaking Tests 2026: Format, Marks and Sample Answers for BM and English

SPM 2026 begins with talking. The Bahasa Melayu speaking test runs from Monday 26 to Thursday 29 October, and the English speaking test from Monday 2 to Thursday 5 November. Each is a paper in its own right, BM Paper 3 (1103/3) and English Paper 3 (1119/3), and missing either one marks you absent for the whole subject unless you hand in supporting documents.^[1]

The two tests are built differently. In Bahasa Melayu you answer an assessor's questions alone, then discuss a statement with three or four other candidates. In English you sit with one partner through a 13-minute test in three parts. Both reward the same things: answering the question you were asked, giving a reason and an example, and keeping a conversation going with the people in the room.

This guide explains how each test runs, minute by minute, how the marks are split, what the examiners listen for, and how to practise in the weeks you have left. It uses Lembaga Peperiksaan's format books, the examiners' own instructions and the SPM 2026 timetable.

The two tests at a glance

Your school tells you the day and the session (sidang). The full session times for both tests are in our SPM 2026 timetable, and repeated below.

Bahasa Melayu: the Ujian Bertutur (1103/3)

The BM test has two parts, taken in the same session: Part A, an individual test (Bahagian A Individu), and Part B, a group discussion (Bahagian B Kumpulan).^[2] According to LP's administration guide, two assessors from outside your school, usually BM teachers from nearby schools, run and mark it.^[3]

Part A: the individual test (40 marks)

You receive a candidate's copy (Naskhah Calon) with a short passage, about a hundred words in LP's samples, and one or more photographs on a general topic. The instruction tells you to read the material and answer the questions orally in grammatical sentences. The questions are printed only on the assessor's copy (Naskhah Pentaksir), so you hear them for the first time in the room. Each candidate has 3 to 5 minutes.

LP's own sample, "Industri Pelancongan", shows the usual pattern of four questions:

The first questions check that you understood the passage. The last ones ask for your view, and they are where most of the marks are won or lost.

LP lists four aspects for the speaking skill: grammar and vocabulary (tatabahasa dan kosa kata); pronunciation, intonation and tone (sebutan, intonasi dan nada); fluency and courtesy (fasih dan bertatasusila); and ideas and meaning (idea dan bermakna). The individual test is marked analytically, aspect by aspect.

Question 4 "Cadangkan beberapa faktor yang mampu menarik rakyat negara ini dan pelancong asing melancong di Malaysia." (Suggest some factors that could draw Malaysians and foreign tourists to travel in Malaysia.)

Typical answer About 15 seconds

"Malaysia ada banyak tempat menarik dan makanan yang sedap. Jadi ramai orang suka datang."

("Malaysia has many interesting places and good food, so many people like to come.") The right idea, said once, with no reason, example or second factor.

Fuller answer About a minute

1. Adds a point: "Pada pandangan saya, ada beberapa faktor yang mampu menarik pelancong ke Malaysia." (In my view, several factors can draw tourists to Malaysia.)
2. Adds a point: "Faktor pertama ialah kepelbagaian makanan. Pelancong boleh menikmati nasi lemak, roti canai dan laksa dalam satu hari, seperti yang diperkenalkan melalui acara 'Malaysian Kitchen' di London." (The first is the variety of food, as the passage's London event shows.) Easy to leave out
3. Adds a point: "Faktor kedua ialah keindahan alam semula jadi. Contohnya, Langkawi terkenal dengan pantai dan geoparknya yang diiktiraf UNESCO." (The second is natural beauty, with an example.)
4. Adds a point: "Faktor ketiga ialah kemudahan pengangkutan, seperti lebuh raya dan penerbangan tambang murah yang menghubungkan negeri-negeri." (The third is easy travel, with an example.)
5. Adds a point: "Oleh itu, jika faktor-faktor ini terus dipromosikan, sektor pelancongan negara akan berkembang dengan lebih pesat." (A closing line that answers the question.)

The difference is structure. The fuller answer names three factors instead of one, gives each a reason or an example, and ties one of them back to the passage. One shape works for any open question: give your view, give a reason, add an example, and come back to the question.

Part B: the group discussion (30 marks)

Your group receives one statement on a general theme, with an instruction such as "Bincangkan" or "Ulaskan pernyataan tersebut". LP's sample reads: "Banyak faktor yang menyebabkan remaja pada hari ini kurang melibatkan diri dalam aktiviti komuniti dan kemasyarakatan seperti bergotong-royong, menyertai badan-badan bukan kerajaan (NGO) dan khidmat sosial. Ulaskan pernyataan tersebut."

In 2026, each group has 10 minutes to prepare in the quarantine room (Bilik Kuarantin), then a 15-minute slot in the test room. The format book sets 12 to 15 minutes of discussion. Groups are usually four candidates; LP's documents allow three to five. The discussion is marked holistically, as one overall judgement of how you took part. Teacher guides describe two rounds: each candidate speaks in turn first, then the discussion opens up.

Courtesy (bertatasusila) is one of the four aspects, so how you agree, disagree and bring others in is part of what is marked. These phrases do that work:

Themes in LP's samples and the 2025 trial papers include sport and recreation, identity and citizenship, tourism, unity, the economy and entrepreneurship, safety, the environment, integrity, and history and heritage. In November 2025 KPM said the "leaked" speaking-test questions circulating online were lists of general themes from the curriculum documents.^[4] Prepare for themes; a script for a topic you guessed will not fit the statement you get.

The BM session on the day

English: the Speaking paper (1119/3)

You take the English test with one other candidate. Two teachers run it. The interlocutor, a teacher from your own school, asks the questions and keeps time. The assessor, a teacher from a nearby school, listens and marks. They mark separately and do not discuss your marks.^[5] The whole test takes about 13 minutes.^[6]

Part 1: short answers that keep going

Give two or three sentences, not one, and add a reason. The examiners' instructions expect some rehearsed-sounding answers about yourself, but they tell interlocutors to cut off "lengthy and obviously prepared speeches" politely and move on. A natural answer of three sentences does better than a recited paragraph.

Part 2: one minute, four prompts

LP's sample card reads "A person you admire", with four prompts: who this person is, what this person looks like, why you admire this person, and whether it is important for people to have good role models. You are not penalised for skipping a prompt or taking them in another order, but the last prompt is the one designed to draw out more complex language. Use the 20 seconds to pick your order and to save your best sentences for that last prompt.

Part 2 card A person you admire. You should say: who this person is; what this person looks like; why you admire this person; if you think it is important for people to have good role models.

Typical answer About 15 seconds

"I admire my mother. She is kind and she works very hard. That's all."

Two prompts covered in three short sentences, then a stop. The interlocutor will prompt, but the minute is mostly unused.

Fuller answer About a minute

1. Adds a point: The person I admire most is my grandmother, who raised five children while running a small kuih stall in Ipoh.
2. Adds a point: She is quite short and always wears a batik scarf, but what people notice first is her laugh.
3. Adds a point: I admire her because she never gave up when business was slow. She changed her recipes and tried again.
4. Adds a point: I do think role models matter, because teenagers copy what they see. If we only follow influencers, we may start to value money more than hard work. Easy to leave out

The interlocutor stops you at one minute with "Thank you". That is normal, and it does not cost you marks.

Part 3: talk to your partner

LP's sample mind map asks "Why do people shop online?" with six ideas around it: no crowds, time-saving, better prices, convenient, wide variety, and following the trend. The further question asks how advertising on social media influences what people buy.

Two lines from the examiners' instructions change how to approach this part. The examiners assess "the quality of the language used in the discussion and the working towards a decision", and a pair that does not reach a decision is not asked to try again. In the final question, candidates "are not required to agree". So talk to your partner, not to the interlocutor; respond to what your partner said before adding your own idea; and if you disagree, say why.

Asking for clarification appears in the band 3 description, so a polite "Could you repeat that?" is a skill the examiners look for.

How the English test is marked

The interlocutor gives each candidate a mark out of 6 for overall spoken performance. The assessor gives three marks out of 6: grammar, vocabulary and communicative competence. That makes 24. The bands run from 1 to 6 and match the CEFR levels: band 1 is A2, band 3 is B1, band 5 is B2 and band 6 is C1.

Some websites list "pronunciation", "discourse management" or "interactive communication" as SPM criteria. Those labels come from other exams. SPM uses the four scales above. Each of the four English papers is worth 25% of the grade, and your results include a CEFR level for English overall and for each skill, speaking included.^[7]

The English session on the day

Each session is a two-hour block in which pairs are tested in turn. Session 1 candidates wait in the quarantine room until 11:00 am; later sessions may leave after their turn.

On the day: rules for both tests

• Be in the waiting room (Bilik Menunggu) 10 minutes before your session's briefing starts.
• Bring your identity card. School candidates sit the test in school uniform.
• Bring nothing else into the waiting room, test room or quarantine room: no notes, books, dictionaries, paper, phones, smart watches, other electronic devices, pencil cases or bags.
• The passage, card and mind map are collected after the test. You cannot keep or photograph them.
• Do not talk to candidates who have not taken the test yet. That is what the quarantine room is for.
• If you are ill, tell your school at once. A missed speaking test marks you absent for the whole subject unless you hand in supporting documents, such as a government hospital doctor's letter, before SPM 2026 ends.

Our SPM 2026 exam rules guide covers the rest of the regulations.

Five habits that cost marks

A practice plan for the weeks before the test

1. 1 Learn both formats
2. 2 Record yourself and listen back
3. 3 Practise in pairs and groups
4. 4 Sit one full mock

Start with LP's official sample videos of English speaking tests at B1 and B2 level, on LP's speaking test page. Record yourself answering five personal questions in English and four questions on a 100-word BM passage, and listen back once. Practise one shape on ten open questions in each language: your view, a reason, an example, back to the question. Time English long turns at 20 seconds to plan and one minute to talk, covering all four prompts. With three friends, take one statement, 10 minutes to prepare and 15 minutes to talk, using the phrases above. Then sit one full mock with a teacher or tutor under the real timings, and fix the two weakest habits it shows.

The night before, check the session your school gave you, pack your identity card, and stop practising.

For teachers running a mock test

Run it the way the real test runs, so the first time students meet the rooms and the timings is not on the day. For BM, give each candidate four questions (two on the passage, two open), five minutes each, then groups of four with 10 minutes to prepare and 15 minutes to discuss. For English, run pairs through the 13-minute frame with the 20-second preparation times, and mark on the four scales. Give each student one written note afterwards: their weakest aspect and one phrase that would fix it.

Frequently asked questions

When is the SPM 2026 speaking test?

The Bahasa Melayu speaking test runs from Monday 26 to Thursday 29 October 2026, and the English speaking test from Monday 2 to Thursday 5 November 2026. Each runs three sessions a day, and your school assigns your day and session.

How long is the BM individual speaking test?

Each candidate speaks for 3 to 5 minutes, answering four questions on a short passage. In the 2026 timetable, four candidates share a 20-minute slot.

How long is the BM group speaking test?

Each group prepares for 10 minutes in the quarantine room, then discusses for 12 to 15 minutes. The 2026 timetable gives each group a 15-minute slot.

How many marks is the BM speaking test?

70 marks: 40 for the individual test and 30 for the group discussion. Lembaga Peperiksaan does not publish how the four BM papers are weighted in the final grade.

How long is the SPM English speaking test?

About 13 minutes for a pair of candidates, in three parts: an interview (3 to 4 minutes), a long turn (3 to 4 minutes) and a discussion (4 to 5 minutes).

How is the SPM English speaking test marked?

Out of 24. The interlocutor gives a mark out of 6 for overall spoken performance, and the assessor gives marks out of 6 for grammar, vocabulary and communicative competence. The paper is 25% of the English grade.

Can I bring notes into the speaking test?

No. Notes, books, dictionaries, paper, phones, smart watches, pencil cases and bags are banned in the waiting room, test room and quarantine room.

Should I memorise answers for the speaking test?

Memorise phrases, not speeches. English examiners are told to cut off obviously prepared speeches, and a memorised answer rarely fits the exact question or statement you get.

What happens if I miss the speaking test?

The whole subject is recorded as absent (T), even if you sat the written papers, unless you hand in supporting documents, such as a government hospital doctor's letter, before SPM 2026 ends.

Do I have to agree with my partner in Part 3?

No. The examiners assess the quality of your language and how you work towards a decision. Disagreeing politely, with a reason, is fine.